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ADEO Exam 2025 Answer Key: Questions 16 to 100 with Explanation

ADEO Exam 2025 – Answer Key (Questions 16 to 100)

Welcome to the detailed answer key for the ADEO (Assistant Development Extension Officer) Exam 2025. Below, you will find answers and explanations for Question Numbers 16 to 100 based on the official syllabus and relevant reference material.

👉 To read the Answer Key with explanations for Questions 01 to 16, please click here.

This resource is prepared for students appearing in competitive exams and for those seeking a clear understanding of answer logic. Each question is followed by the correct answer ✅ and a brief explanation.

Question 16

The Marwa Thermal Power Station is situated in which district of Chhattisgarh?

  • A. Korba
  • B. Bilaspur
  • C. Janjgir-Champa ✅ (Correct Answer)
  • D. Raipur

Explanation:
Marwa Thermal Power Station is located in Janjgir-Champa district of Chhattisgarh. It is a coal-based power station.

Question 17

According to the 2011 Census, the percentage of rural and urban families in Chhattisgarh is -

  • A. 78.56% and 21.44%
  • B. 80.10% and 19.90%
  • C. 77.26% and 22.74%
  • D. 74.25% and 25.75% ✅ (Correct Answer)

Explanation:
As per the 2011 Census, 74.25% of the population lives in rural areas, while 25.75% live in urban areas in Chhattisgarh.

Question 18

Who is the executive head of the State Government?

  • A. Chief Minister
  • B. Governor ✅ (Correct Answer)
  • C. Chief Secretary
  • D. President

Explanation:
In legal/constitutional terms, the Governor is the executive head of a state (Article 153), though actual power is exercised by the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.

Question 19

What is the correct sequence of the tribal rebellion in Bastar in terms of Chronology?
Given rebellions:

  • (a) Lingagiree Rebellion
  • (b) Koee Rebellion
  • (c) Bhopalatnam Rebellion
  • (d) Merya Revolts (1850)
  • (e) Muria Revolts

Correct Option:
B. c → d → a → b → e ✅

Explanation:
The chronological order of tribal revolts in Bastar is:
1. Bhopalatnam Rebellion
2. Merya Revolts
3. Lingagiree Rebellion
4. Koee Rebellion
5. Muria Revolts

Question 20

According to Economic Survey 2024-25, which of the following is correct?

  • (I) The share of agriculture and allied sectors is estimated at 20.7% in 2024-25.
  • (II) Share of agriculture sector in GSDP (at constant prices) in 2011-12 was 18.10%.
  • (III) The share of service sector in GSDP in Chhattisgarh has been steadily increasing.

Correct Option:
A. I and III only ✅

Explanation:
• Statement I: Correct as per Economic Survey 2024-25.
• Statement II: Incorrect — the exact value needs confirmation; often slightly varies.
• Statement III: Correct — service sector's share has shown growth in GSDP in recent years.

Question 21

Make proper connection with the major schemes/programs of Chhattisgarh State Forestry Department -

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Environmental ForestryIV. Construction of environment parks/picnic spots
(b) Revival of Bamboo ForestsI. Improvement of bamboo forests in forests and non-forest areas
(c) Harihar Chhattisgarh PlantingII. Plantation of trees in 392 hectares area in Raipur, Durg, and Korba Districts
(d) Improvement of Deteriorated ForestsIII. Trees are planted in empty and non-existent places

Correct Option: B. a–IV, b–I, c–II, d–III ✅

Explanation:
Each forestry scheme aligns with specific developmental objectives as explained above.

Question 22

The three main rivers of Bastar District are -

  • A. Indravati, Kharun, Indravati
  • B. Indravati, Sankh, Makarand
  • C. Indravati, Makarand, Narangi
  • D. Mand, Indravati, Narangi ✅

Explanation:
Mand, Indravati, and Narangi are the key rivers supporting Bastar's ecosystem and life.

Question 23

The meaning of the idiom 'Ang Lagna' is -

  • A. To touch the body
  • B. To have an effect
  • C. Hug ✅
  • D. None of the above

Explanation:
“Ang Lagna” means to embrace or hug, showing closeness or affection.

Question 24

Which folk festival is popular in Chhattisgarh with the wish for long life and prosperity of children?

  • A. Aathe Kanhai
  • B. Kamar Chhath ✅
  • C. Teeja
  • D. Hareli

Explanation:
Kamar Chhath is devoted to the well-being and prosperity of children in Chhattisgarh.

Question 25

Match Column - A with Column - B

Column - AColumn - B
(a) Donation of Pashipadrak & Koorpadak villages(I) Ratanpur
(b) Antique of gambling incident(III) Malhar
(c) Establishment of Golki monastery(IV) Budaheekhar
(d) Creation of Chandraditya sea(II) Barsur

Correct Option: B. a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II ✅

Explanation:
Each item is connected with a historical fact from inscriptions or antiquities.

Question 26

Match the following - Caves and Characteristics

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Kailash Cave(II) Stalactmites
(b) Kutumsar Cave(III) Blind-fish
(c) Singhpur Cave(I) Mexican and Spanish Sculptures
(d) Jogimara Cave(IV) Bird and Human painting

Correct Option: A. a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV ✅

Explanation:
Each cave is uniquely identified by its archaeological or natural characteristics.

Question 27

Assertion [As] and Reason [R]

Assertion [As]: The tribal people of Bheji, Kotapalli, and Photkel were called Kooi.

Reason [R]: The dialect of the Kondh tribe is also called Kooi.

Correct Option: C. [As] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [As]. ✅

Explanation:
The Kooi dialect and the tribal names are factually correct, but not causally connected.

Question 28

Which of these tribes is not from Chhattisgarh?

  • A. Aghariya
  • B. Baiga
  • C. Kamar
  • D. Gurjar ✅

Explanation:
Gurjars are native to northern India, not Chhattisgarh.

Question 29

Who is called the Chanakya of South Kaushal?

  • A. Sadharan
  • B. Shri Chhichhhchhathreshwar
  • C. Singhdatta ✅
  • D. Kumbhandipal

Explanation:
Singhdatta was known for his strategy and governance, earning him this title.

Question 30

Match the following industrial areas and districts:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Borai(II) Durg
(b) Magarlod(III) Dhamtari
(c) Frezerpur(IV) Bastar
(d) Birkoni(I) Mahasamund

Correct Option: B. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I ✅

Explanation:
Each industrial region is mapped to its respective district in Chhattisgarh.

Question 31

Arrange the Governors of Chhattisgarh in Chronological order:

List:

  • (a) Shri E. S. L. Narasimhan
  • (b) Shri Shekhar Dutt
  • (c) Shri Balramji Das Tandon
  • (d) Smt. Anandiben Patel
  • (e) Miss Anusuiya Uikey

✅ Correct Option: C. a > b > c > d > e

Explanation:
This sequence matches the historical tenure of Governors in Chhattisgarh.

Question 32

On the basis of trends, in how many periods has Dr. Narendra Dev Verma divided the Chhattisgarhi Literature Tradition?

✅ Correct Answer: C. 5

Explanation:
Dr. Narendra Dev Verma categorized Chhattisgarhi literature tradition into 5 distinct periods, based on literary and historical trends.

Question 33

Assertion and Reason

Assertion [A]: The inscription obtained from Shivrinarayan describes the practice of Sati.
Reason [R]: All three wives of King Ulhan Dev committed Sati along with him.

✅ Correct Answer: C. [A] is true, but [R] is false.

Explanation:
While the inscription does mention Sati, the specific claim that all three wives of King Ulhan Dev committed Sati is historically unverified or inaccurate.

Question 34

Order of musical instruments by the players:

Players: Raja Bhupdev Singh, Vimlendra Mukharjee, Thakur Lakshman Singh, Raja Kamalnarayan Singh

Instruments:

  • (a) Sitar
  • (b) Mridanga
  • (c) Pakhawaj
  • (d) Tabla

✅ Correct Answer: A. a > b > c > d

Explanation:
This follows the association of these players with their respective instruments in historical/cultural records.

Question 35

Festivals celebrated in Chhattisgarh in ascending order (starting from Chaitra month):

  • Ramnavmi
  • Akti
  • Rath Yatra
  • Kajri
  • Pola

✅ Correct Answer: A. a > b > c > d > e

Explanation:
This is the correct chronological order of festivals starting from Chaitra (March–April) onward.

Question 36

Match the following:

Column IColumn II
(a) Lokayukta, Chhattisgarh Government(I) Inder Singh Uboweja
(b) Chief Secretary of Chhattisgarh(II) Amitabh Jain
(c) State Election Commissioner(III) Ajay Singh
(d) Advocate General(IV) Prafull Kumar Bharat

✅ Correct Option: C. a–I, b–II, c–III, d–IV

Explanation:
Each official is correctly matched with their role or designation in Chhattisgarh’s government structure.

Question 37

Chhattisgarh State borders how many States?

✅ Correct Answer: C. 7

Explanation:
Chhattisgarh shares its borders with 7 states: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Odisha, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 38

The Climate of Chhattisgarh is:
छत्तीसगढ़ की जलवायु है-

  • A. Tropical ✅
  • B. Sub-tropical
  • C. Semi-Arid
  • D. Temperate

📝 Explanation:
Chhattisgarh experiences a tropical climate, which includes hot summers, a significant monsoon season, and mild winters. The region lies in the tropical zone and typically has a hot and humid climate suitable for agriculture.

Question 39

In the handwritten budget speech presented by Finance Minister O. P. Choudhary, there is a provision for funds for the “MUKHYAMANTRI NAGAROTTHAN YOJANA”.
वित्त मंत्री ओ. पी. चौधरी द्वारा प्रस्तुत हस्तलिखित बजट भाषण में “मुख्यमंत्री नगरोदय योजना” हेतु राशि का प्रावधान है-

  • A. ₹1000 crores
  • B. ₹300 crores ✅
  • C. ₹500 crores
  • D. ₹600 crores

📝 Explanation:
According to the budget speech, ₹300 crores were allocated for the Mukhyamantri Nagarotthan Yojana, which is aimed at the development and infrastructure improvement of urban areas in Chhattisgarh.

Question 40

The Couplets sung in between Raut Nacha are:
राउत नाचा में बीच-बीच में गाए जाने वाले दोहे होते हैं-

  • A. Related to devotion
  • B. Policy related ✅
  • C. Humorous
  • D. All of the above

📝 Explanation:
In Raut Nacha, a traditional folk dance of Chhattisgarh performed by the Yadav (Raut) community, the couplets or dohe sung during the performance are often policy-related. These couplets may reflect social, administrative, or cultural commentary, serving as a form of expression and resistance.

41. Assertion and Reason

Assertion [A]: Encouraging and promoting social entrepreneurship.
Reason [R]: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana.
Correct Answer: B. Both [As] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [As].

Explanation:
Jan Dhan Yojana is primarily a financial inclusion scheme; while it can indirectly help entrepreneurship, it is not the core reason for promoting social entrepreneurship.

42. Chronological order of development of animal husbandry

Given items:

  • (a) Domestication of Sheep and Goat
  • (b) Domestication of Cattle and Pigs
  • (c) Domestication of Elephants
  • (d) Domestication of Chicken
  • (e) Domestication of Alpaca and Llama
Correct Answer: D. a > b > d > c > e

Explanation:
Chronological development based on archaeological and anthropological studies:
1. Sheep & Goat – among the earliest animals domesticated.
2. Cattle & Pigs – domesticated soon after.
3. Chicken – domesticated later.
4. Elephants – domesticated in historical periods, not prehistory.
5. Alpaca & Llama – native to South America, domesticated much later.

43. Short Term Agricultural Loans are required for following-

Options:

  • A. Purchase of Cattle
  • B. Purchase of Seeds
  • C. Purchase of Small Implements
  • D. Purchase of Machinery
Correct Answer: C. Purchase of Small Implements

📝 Explanation:
Short-term agricultural loans are typically meant to meet the immediate and seasonal needs of farmers like seeds, fertilizers, small tools, and labor costs. Large expenses like machinery are usually covered under long-term loans.

44. Match the following:

Column - I Column - II
(a) New set of self-help (I) 1967-68
(b) Multiple cropping program (II) Business venture
(c) The gamble of the Indian monsoon (III) Community organizer
(d) Writing minutes of meetings (IV) Planning commission

Correct Answer: B. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

📝 Explanation:

  • a → II: Self-help groups are associated with business ventures.
  • b → I: The multiple cropping program was introduced in 1967-68.
  • c → IV: The Indian monsoon gamble is often referenced in planning-related discourse.
  • d → III: Writing minutes is a task often done by community organizers.

45. Assertion and Reason

Assertion [As]: The domestication of livestock was driven by the need to have food on hand when hunting was unproductive.
Reason [R]: The desirable characteristics of a domestic animal are that it should be useful to the domesticator, should be able to thrive in his or her company, should breed freely and be easy to tend.

Options:

  • A. ✅ Both [As] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [As]
  • B. Both [As] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [As]
  • C. [As] is true, but [R] is false
  • D. [As] is false, but [R] is true

Correct Answer: A. Both [As] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [As]

📝 Explanation:
• [As] is true: Domestication helped ensure a steady food supply when hunting wasn't possible.
• [R] is also true and explains why certain animals were domesticated — based on utility, ease of care, and reproductive behavior.

47. On which wheat did the I.C.R. Scientists research for Green Revolution?

Options:

  • A. Maxine
  • B. Germany
  • C. China
  • D. Russia
Correct Answer: A. Maxine

📝 Explanation:
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and scientists during the Green Revolution focused their wheat research on "Mexican dwarf wheat varieties" such as 'Sonora 64' and 'Lerma Rojo'. These were developed in Mexico by Dr. Norman Borlaug and later adopted in India.

48. Identify Person’s livelihoods:

Options:

  • E. Food — भोजन
  • F. Water — पानी
  • G. Transport — परिवहन
  • H. Electricity — बिजली
  • A. E & G
  • B. ✅ E & F
  • C. G & H
  • D. F & G
Correct Answer: B. E & F

📝 Explanation:
Food and water are basic livelihood necessities that directly impact an individual’s daily survival and sustenance. Transport and electricity are more of infrastructural or service-based needs, not direct livelihoods.

49. The working group on Rural Banks (1975) recommended the establishment of following:

Options:

  • A. ✅ Regional Rural Banks
  • B. State Regional Rural Banks
  • C. District Rural Banks
  • D. Primary Agricultural Banks
Correct Answer: A. Regional Rural Banks

📝 Explanation:
The Working Group under Narasimham Committee (1975) recommended the establishment of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) to provide credit and banking facilities in rural areas, especially for weaker sections.

50. In case of delay in reimbursement of loan to the members of self-help group—

Options:

  • A. No change in interest rate
  • B. Interest rate decrease
  • C. Interest rate increase
  • D. ✅ Interest rate remain stable
Correct Answer: D. Interest rate remain stable

📝 Explanation:
In most self-help group (SHG)-linked lending schemes, even when there is delay in repayment, the interest rate remains fixed/stable. The idea is to encourage financial inclusion and reduce the burden on economically weaker sections.

41. Assertion [A]: Encouraging and promoting social entrepreneurship.

Reason [R]: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana.

✅ Correct Answer: B. Both [As] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [As].

Explanation:
Jan Dhan Yojana is primarily a financial inclusion scheme; while it can indirectly help entrepreneurship, it is not the core reason for promoting social entrepreneurship.

42. Chronological order of development of animal husbandry

Given items:
(a) Domestication of Sheep and Goat
(b) Domestication of Cattle and Pigs
(c) Domestication of Elephants
(d) Domestication of Chicken
(e) Domestication of Alpaca and Llama

✅ Correct Answer: D. a > b > d > c > e

Explanation:
Chronological development based on archaeological and anthropological studies:
1. Sheep & Goat – among the earliest animals domesticated.
2. Cattle & Pigs – domesticated soon after.
3. Chicken – domesticated later.
4. Elephants – domesticated in historical periods, not prehistory.
5. Alpaca & Llama – native to South America, domesticated much later.

43. Short Term Agricultural Loans are required for following-

✅ Correct Answer: C. Purchase of Small Implements

📝 Explanation:
Short-term agricultural loans are typically meant to meet the immediate and seasonal needs of farmers like seeds, fertilizers, small tools, and labor costs. Large expenses like machinery are usually covered under long-term loans.

44. Match the following:

Column - I Column - II
(a) New set of self-help(II) Business venture
(b) Multiple cropping program(I) 1967-68
(c) The gamble of the Indian monsoon(IV) Planning commission
(d) Writing minutes of meetings(III) Community organizer

✅ Correct Answer: B. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

📝 Explanation:
• a → II: Self-help groups are associated with business ventures.
• b → I: The multiple cropping program was introduced in 1967-68.
• c → IV: The Indian monsoon gamble is often referenced in planning-related discourse.
• d → III: Writing minutes is a task often done by community organizers.

45. Assertion [As]: The domestication of livestock was driven by the need to have food on hand when hunting was unproductive.

Reason [R]: The desirable characteristics of a domestic animal are that it should be useful to the domesticator, should be able to thrive in his or her company, should breed freely and be easy to tend.

✅ Correct Answer: A. Both [As] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [As]

📝 Explanation:
• [As] is true: Domestication helped ensure a steady food supply when hunting wasn't possible.
• [R] is also true and explains why certain animals were domesticated — based on utility, ease of care, and reproductive behavior.

47. On which wheat did the I.C.R. Scientists research for Green Revolution?

✅ Correct Answer: A. Maxine

📝 Explanation:
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and scientists during the Green Revolution focused their wheat research on "Mexican dwarf wheat varieties" such as 'Sonora 64' and 'Lerma Rojo'. These were developed in Mexico by Dr. Norman Borlaug and later adopted in India.

48. Identify Person’s livelihoods:

(E) Food — भोजन
(F) Water — पानी
(G) Transport — परिवहन
(H) Electricity — बिजली

✅ Correct Answer: B. E & F

📝 Explanation:
Food and water are basic livelihood necessities that directly impact an individual’s daily survival and sustenance. Transport and electricity are more of infrastructural or service-based needs, not direct livelihoods.

49. The working group on Rural Banks (1975) recommended the establishment of following-

✅ Correct Answer: A. Regional Rural Banks

📝 Explanation:
The Working Group under Narasimham Committee (1975) recommended the establishment of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) to provide credit and banking facilities in rural areas, especially for weaker sections.

50. In case of delay in reimbursement of loan to the members of self-help group—

✅ Correct Answer: D. Interest rate remain stable

📝 Explanation:
In most self-help group (SHG)-linked lending schemes, even when there is delay in repayment, the interest rate remains fixed/stable. The idea is to encourage financial inclusion and reduce the burden on economically weaker sections.

Q61. Please select the right equation as per Panchayati Raj Hierarchy:

(a) Zila Panchayat
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Janpad Panchayat
(d) Gram Sabha

Options:
A. a > c > b > d
B. c > a > b > d
C. c > b > a > d
D. a > b > c > d

✅ Correct Answer: A. a > c > b > d

Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj System has a three-tier structure:
1. Zila Panchayat (District level)
2. Janpad Panchayat (Block level)
3. Gram Panchayat (Village level)
4. Gram Sabha is the body of all voters at the village level, not a tier of panchayat.

Q62. Assertion [As]: Sarpanch can be removed by the Gram Sabha.
Reason [R]: Gram Sabha elects the Sarpanch.

Options:
A. Both [As] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [As].
B. Both [As] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [As].
C. [As] is true, and [R] is false.
D. [As] is false, and [R] is true.

✅ Correct Answer: C. [As] is true, and [R] is false.

Explanation:
Sarpanch is elected directly by the registered voters of the Panchayat. The Gram Sabha may initiate a no-confidence motion, but it does not elect the Sarpanch.

Q63. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Janpad Panchayat in India?

Options:
A. Janpad Panchayat is the intermediate level of the three-tier Panchayati Raj System.
B. It is responsible for the implementation of development programs at the block level.
C. The members of Janpad Panchayat are directly elected by the voters.
D. Janpad Panchayat has no role in the preparation of the district’s annual development plan.

✅ Correct Answer: A. Janpad Panchayat is the intermediate level of the three-tier Panchayati Raj System.

Explanation:
A is correct in all states; B and C vary state-wise; D is false.

Q64. Functions of Gram Sabha include:

(I) It approves plans for the villages. ✅
(II) It elects Zila Parishad member. ❌
(III) It supervises Gram Panchayat activities. ✅
(IV) It reviews Financial Reports. ✅

🔹 Correct Answer: B. I, III and IV only

Q65. Which of the following is a key function of the Gram Sabha under the Panchayati Raj System in India?

Options:
A. Appointing the Sarpanch directly ❌
B. Approving the annual budget & development plan of the Gram Panchayat ✅
C. Collecting State level taxes ❌
D. Conducting elections for the State Legislative Assembly ❌

🔹 Correct Answer: B

Q66. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within how many days?

Options:
A. Two months from the date of dissolution
B. Twelve months from the date of dissolution
C. Six months from the date of dissolution ✅
D. One month from the date of dissolution

✅ Correct Answer: C. Six months from the date of dissolution

Q67. To whom does the Sarpanch hand over his resignation?

Options:
A. To the Development Officer of Panchayat
B. Deputy Sarpanch
C. C.E.O. of Zila Parishad
✅ D. Pradhan

Explanation:
As per Panchayati Raj rules, the Sarpanch submits resignation to the Pradhan of the Panchayat Samiti.

Q68. MGNREGA has a major role in the Panchayat sector schemes in National Development

Assertion [As]: MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households.
Reason [R]: MGNREGA enhances livelihood security by providing unskilled work.

Options:
A. Both [As] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [As].
B. [As] is true, but [R] is false.
C. [As] is false, but [R] is true.
✅ D. Both [As] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [As].

Explanation:
MGNREGA ensures job and income security and is implemented via Gram Panchayats. Reason supports the assertion.

Q69. Direct election in Panchayati Raj is held for—

Options:
A. Members of Zila Panchayat
B. Chairman of Janpad Panchayat
C. Chairman of Zila Panchayat
✅ D. Sarpanch

Explanation:
Sarpanch is elected directly by the registered voters of the Gram Panchayat. Chairpersons of higher bodies are elected indirectly.

Q70. The Constitution (Seventy Third Amendment) Act 1992 came into effect on—

Options:
A. 24th April, 1992
✅ B. 24th April, 1993
C. 20th March, 1992
D. 20th March, 1993

Explanation:
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act came into effect on 24 April 1993, observed as National Panchayati Raj Day.

Q71. Match the following:

Column – I
(a) NABARD
(b) Regional Rural Bank
(c) District Central Co-operative Bank
(d) State Co-operative Bank

Column – II
I. An apex financial institution operating at the state level
II. Provides credit to Primary Agriculture Credit Societies
III. Refinance to various financial institutions
IV. Provides loan for the development of agriculture

✅ Correct Answer: D. a–III, b–IV, c–II, d–I

Explanation:
• NABARD → III (Refinance institution)
• RRB → IV (Loans for rural/agricultural development)
• DCCB → II (Credit to PACS)
• SCB → I (State-level apex cooperative bank)

Q72. Who is the Chairperson of the Apex Committee responsible for implementation of PM-JANMAN in Chhattisgarh?

A. Chief Minister ✅
B. Minister of ST, SC Development Department
C. Chief Secretary
D. Principal Secretary of ST, SC Development Department

Explanation:
Chief Minister is the Chairperson of the Apex Committee for PM-JANMAN at the state level.

Q73. When was Chhattisgarh Social Audit Unit Constituted?

A. September 2013 ✅
B. February 2013
C. September 2014
D. February 2015

Explanation:
The unit was formed in September 2013 for transparency in governance and scheme implementation.

Q74. Arrange the following in chronological order:

(a) Saubhagya Yojana
(b) Ujjwala Yojana
(c) Vandan Mahtari Yojana
(d) Dai-Didi Mobile Clinic Scheme
(e) Shree Dhanwantari Generic Medical Store Scheme

✅ Correct Order: e, d, c, b, a

Correct Option: B

Explanation:
1. Shree Dhanwantari – 2021
2. Dai-Didi – 2022
3. Vandan Mahtari – 2023
4. Ujjwala – 2016
5. Saubhagya – 2017

Q75. How is the audit managed in Panchayats?

A. By the independent audit team
B. Internal audit by the Directorate of Panchayat
✅ C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Explanation:
Panchayat audits are done through internal and external audits for checks and balances.

Q76. Match the SDG numbers with names:

(a) Goal No.05 – I. Gender Equality
(b) Goal No.06 – III. Clean Water and Sanitation
(c) Goal No.07 – II. Affordable and Clean Energy
(d) Goal No.08 – IV. Decent Work and Economic Growth

✅ Correct Option: C. a–I, b–III, c–II, d–IV

Explanation:
These correspond with the official UN SDG list.

Q77. RTI Act Assertion-Reason

Assertion [As]: Section 20 provides for reasonable opportunity before penalty.
Reason [R]: RTI is a quasi-judicial process.

✅ Correct Answer: A. Both [As] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [As].

Explanation:
Penalty requires opportunity to be heard due to natural justice. RTI is quasi-judicial, but that doesn’t explain the hearing requirement directly.

Q78. Under RTI Act 2005, who designates the Public Information Officer?

A. Department
B. State Government
✅ C. Public Authority
D. Cabinet of State Government

Explanation:
Section 5(1) mandates each Public Authority to appoint PIOs.

Q79. In which Section of NREGA 2005 is Social Audit provided?

A. Section – 15
B. Section – 16
✅ C. Section – 17
D. Section – 18

Explanation:
Section 17 mandates Gram Sabha to conduct social audits for schemes under NREGA.

Q80. Assertion [As]: RSETI runs various programs.
Reason [R]: To develop self-employment skills among rural youth.

✅ Correct Answer: A. Both [As] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [As].

Explanation:
RSETIs promote self-employment via skill-based training, and the reason justifies the programs conducted.

Q81. Functions of NABARD are:

(a) Direct Finance
(b) Refinance
(c) Developmental
(d) Supervisory

✅ Correct Answer: D. a, b, c and d

Explanation:
NABARD performs all four functions including Direct Finance, Refinance to banks, Developmental activities, and Supervisory roles over cooperative banks and RRBs.

Q82. The ‘Right to Information Act, 2005’ is—

A. Quasi Judicial Procedure ✅
B. Administrative Procedure
C. Judicial Procedure
D. None of the above

Explanation:
RTI proceedings are conducted by commissions in a quasi-judicial manner — hearings, orders, and penalties.

Q83. When was Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) Established?

A. 25 September, 1975
B. 26 September, 1975
C. 27 September, 1975
✅ D. 28 September, 1975

Explanation:
RRBs were set up on 28 September 1975 to serve rural credit needs under the RRB Act, 1976.

Q84. RTI Application Process – Correct Order:

(a) Second appeal to State Information Commission
(b) Apply to Public Information Officer (PIO)
(c) First appeal to Appellate Authority

✅ Correct Order: b → c → a
Correct Option: B

Explanation:
The process begins with PIO, then moves to first appeal if unsatisfied, and finally second appeal.

Q85. In which financial year did Chhattisgarh start SVEP under NRLM?

A. 2015–16
✅ B. 2016–17
C. 2017–18
D. 2018–19

Explanation:
SVEP, aimed at boosting rural entrepreneurship, started in Chhattisgarh during FY 2016–17.

Q86. Chhattisgarh State Livelihood Mission is also called ------- in Chhattisgarh.

A. Savera
✅ B. Bihan
C. Jay Joge
D. None of the above

Explanation:
“Bihan” is the name for SRLM in Chhattisgarh, focusing on women-led SHGs and self-reliance.

Q87. When was “Rural Wash” WhatsApp Channel launched?

A. January 2025
B. March 2025
C. December 2024
✅ D. April 2025

Explanation:
Launched in April 2025, this initiative by SBM-G and Jal Jeevan Mission enhances outreach and awareness.

Q88. Match the following:

(a) PM Ujjwala Yojana – I. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
(b) Ayushman Bharat Card – II. National Health Authority
(c) Sukanya Samridhi Yojana – III. Dept. of Women and Child Development
(d) Atal Pension Yojana – IV. Financial Services Department

✅ Correct Match: a–I, b–II, c–III, d–IV
Correct Option: D

Explanation:
Each scheme is administered by the respective central ministry or department for its category.

Q89. Arrange the following in chronological order:

(a) PM Mudra Yojana
(b) Deendayal Upadhyay Rural Skill Development Scheme
(c) PM Rural Road Scheme
(d) Deendayal Antyodaya Scheme
(e) MGNREGA

✅ Correct Order: e → c → d → b → a
Correct Option: A

Timeline:
• MGNREGA – 2005
• PMGSY Phase II – 2009+
• DAY-NRLM – 2011
• DDU-GKY – 2014
• Mudra – 2015

Q90. CAG Audit of Indira Awas Yojana (2014) – Findings:

1. No assessment of housing shortage
2. Lack of transparency in selection
3. Poor quality of housing
4. Unavailability of loans
5. Weak surveillance system

✅ Correct Answer: D. I, II, III, IV, V

Explanation:
All five findings were part of the 2014 audit, revealing serious flaws in the scheme’s implementation.

Q91. एक से अधिक प्रधान उपवाक्य रहते हैं—

(A) मिश्र वाक्य में
(B) संयुक्त वाक्य में ✅
(C) साधारण वाक्य में
(D) सभी में

Explanation: संयुक्त वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक मुख्य उपवाक्य होते हैं जो संयोजक शब्दों से जुड़े होते हैं।

Q92. 'जनता' उदाहरण है—

(A) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा का
(B) जातिवाचक संज्ञा का
(C) समूहवाचक संज्ञा का ✅
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Explanation: 'जनता' लोगों के समूह को दर्शाता है, अतः यह समूहवाचक संज्ञा है।

Q93. निम्नलिखित को सुसंगत कीजिए:

  कालम-I                             कालम-II
  a) मनुष्य अन्न खाता है।          I) इरादात्मक वाक्य
  b) माता-पिता का कहना मानो।     II) विधायक वाक्य
  c) ईश्वर सबका भला करें।         III) संकेतोपर्क वाक्य
  d) पानी न बरसा तो सूखा पड़ेगा। IV) आशंकार्थक वाक्य
  

✅ Correct Answer: a–I, b–II, c–III, d–IV

Explanation:
• a → I (इरादात्मक)
• b → II (विधायक)
• c → III (संकेतोपर्क)
• d → IV (आशंकार्थक)

Q94. निम्नलिखित में 'तत्सम' शब्द का उदाहरण है —

(A) इकक्का
(B) उन्नीस
(C) अंगुलि ✅
(D) ऊँगली

Explanation: 'अंगुलि' संस्कृत से लिया गया तत्सम शब्द है।

Q95. निम्नलिखित उदाहरणों में से मुहावरों को पहचानिए—

J: गिरगिट की तरह रंग बदलना
K: आटे-दाल का भाव मालूम होना
L: जैसा राजा, वैसी प्रजा
M: का वर्षा जब कृषी सुखानी

✅ Correct Answer: C. J, K और L

Explanation:
J, K, L मुहावरे हैं जबकि M एक लोकोक्ति है।

Q96. ‘व्यर्थ’ शब्द में समास निहित है—

(A) तत्पुरुष समास
(B) अव्ययीभाव समास ✅
(C) बहुव्रीहि समास
(D) द्वंद्व समास

Explanation: 'वि + अर्थ' = 'व्यर्थ' – पूरा शब्द अव्यय है, इसलिए अव्ययीभाव समास।

Q97. स्पर्श व्यंजनों के वर्गों का सही क्रम क्या है?

(a) क वर्ग
(b) प वर्ग
(c) त वर्ग
(d) ट वर्ग
(e) च वर्ग

✅ Correct Answer: C. a, e, d, c, b

Explanation: क-वर्ग → च-वर्ग → ट-वर्ग → त-वर्ग → प-वर्ग : यही स्पर्श व्यंजनों का सही क्रम है।

Q98. कथन (AS) और कारण (R) पर आधारित—

[AS]: मुँह से पूरा स्वर निकालें तो शुद्ध नासिक्य रहित स्वर निकलता है।
[R]: यदि स्वर का कुछ अंश भी नाक से निकले, तो अनुस्वारिक ध्वनि निकलती है।

✅ Correct Answer: C. [AS] और [R] दोनों सही हैं।

Explanation: दोनों कथन शुद्ध ध्वनि विज्ञान पर आधारित सही तथ्य हैं।

Q99. ‘बड़ा सा पेड़’ उदाहरण है—

(A) सार्वनामिक विशेषण का
(B) गुणवाचक विशेषण का ✅
(C) संख्यावाचक विशेषण का
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Explanation: 'बड़ा' पेड़ की विशेषता बता रहा है, अतः यह गुणवाचक विशेषण है।

Q100. ‘यण संधि’ का उदाहरण है—

(A) नयन ✅
(B) तरलीन
(C) मातृऋण
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Explanation: 'नि + अन' → 'नयन' में यण संधि का स्पष्ट उदाहरण है।

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